5 responses

  1. faris
    February 19, 2011

    well i think that GNI is based on ownership (because income is accounted in owner’s home country’s GNP irrelevant of the location of business), and GDP is based on location (because income is accounted in GDP of a country where the business is located, irrelevant of owner’s nationality).

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  2. Gustav Öberg
    May 17, 2011

    As faris pointed out it would seem like GNI is based on ownership and GDP on location. To me it seems to fit better with what is said in the rest of the text.
    This would also fit better with what is said in for instance Wikipedia (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gross_domestic_product).
    At a first glance at least it would also explain why for instance Switzerland surpasses USA in GNI but not GDP. If Switzerland has exported more than it has imported it would lead me to guess that it ownes more abroad than what the rest of the world ownes in Switzerland whereas it may be the other way around in USA. This would lead to Switzerland gaining interest abroaid whereas the USA would pay interest and therefore have, ceteris paribus, a lower GNI in comparrisson to its GDP.
    Please correct me if I am wrong, I may be.

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    • Trishan
      August 11, 2017

      You actually got it there

      Reply

  3. Lancebekistan
    December 12, 2011

    GNI also factors in a countries debt. GDP hides the effect of this.

    Reply

  4. Anonymous
    March 7, 2016

    No. Just no. All Wrong.

    Reply

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