7 responses

  1. muhammad azam khan
    March 21, 2017

    Very informative!

    Reply

  2. Zoe Billigmeier
    March 21, 2017

    Very interesting. Did both empires comprise the same territory?

    Reply

    • adib
      December 27, 2018

      no. the Persian empire included some parts which some centuries later became part of the Ottoman empire BUT the Ottoman empire did not inclde all the land previously ruled by the Persian empire. in simple words, these two empires did not fully overlap geographically.

      Reply

  3. Mike
    July 23, 2017

    Difference Between The Ottoman Empire And The Persian Empire or Achaemenid which is the first Persian empire!

    Achaemenid Empire (550–330 BC)
    Sasanian Empire (224–651)
    Samanid Empire ( 891-999)
    Etc.

    Reply

  4. Dragan
    February 3, 2018

    “In fact, they allowed Jews and Christians to worship and practice their traditions without persecution”

    What a load of nonsense, no one taught you about the religious tax, the blood tax etc?

    Reply

    • Histo
      April 30, 2018

      The religious tax was quite low, and mainly used to fund the religious institutions. As for the “blood tax” it ended being practiced in the 1640s.

      The complete abolition of the Janissaries and of the Devshirme took place in 1826.

      It was called Vaka-i Hayriye in Ottoman (Auspicious Iccident) yet Vaka-i Şerriyye (Sad/Unfortunate Incident) by the Balkans’ populations.

      Reply

  5. Josh Stipes
    January 6, 2020

    Thank you, I learned a lot in a short time!

    Reply

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